Thomas Brown
1 min readMar 30, 2019

--

But surely not if the two are of the same race? Say, an Englishman refusing to properly pronounce the place name of a town in Wales for instance? Or a Frenchman’s intentional mispronunciation of an English name?

Obviously, these instances are not racist (unless you disagree), but they are ignorant. I bring these up as unless the person is doing it with the intention of being racist, I’m not sure laziness/ignorance directed to someone who is a different race is implicitly racist. If that makes sense?

It might be a bit of a moot point, but I’d like to hear your thoughts.

--

--

Thomas Brown
Thomas Brown

Written by Thomas Brown

Student of politics and history. Enjoying the circus before the tent burns down. Founder of Practicing Politics — https://medium.com/practicing-politics

No responses yet